Arsenal have taken initial steps toward the potential signing of Chelsea winger Noni Madueke, with sources confirming that the North London club have begun advancing discussions over personal terms with the 22-year-old. The England U21 international is reportedly a priority target for manager Mikel Arteta in the current summer transfer window as the Gunners look to strengthen their attacking options.
Madueke, who joined Chelsea from PSV Eindhoven in January 2023 for a fee reported to be around £29 million, has shown glimpses of his talent but has struggled to secure a consistent starting role at Stamford Bridge. Despite this, the winger remains committed to the Blues for the time being and is currently focused on Chelsea’s campaign at the FIFA Club World Cup.
According to sources close to the player, Madueke has not formally requested a transfer and is not pushing for a move. However, he is understood to be open to a switch to Arsenal should a suitable agreement be reached between the two London rivals.
Arsenal, who finished second in the Premier League last season, are aiming to build a squad capable of challenging Manchester City for the title once again. Mikel Arteta is keen to add depth and quality to his wide positions, especially given the injury concerns surrounding key attackers like Bukayo Saka and Gabriel Martinelli.
At this stage, no agreement has been reached between Arsenal and Chelsea, and negotiations between the clubs are believed to be in the very early stages. The potential deal could hinge on Chelsea’s stance regarding Madueke’s future, as well as Arsenal’s willingness to meet the financial terms required to complete the transfer.
Madueke, known for his direct running, dribbling ability, and flair in one-on-one situations, fits the profile of player Arsenal are targeting as they prepare for a busy 2025/26 season, which includes a return to the UEFA Champions League.
Comments are closed.